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Explain to me why we didn't get a first down on the personal foul


RumHam

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I have never seen that before and they really fuged that up. Never has there been a personal foul that takes place on the next play that still resulted in a turnover on downs. Should have been first down us, not them and 15 yards. #pointsshaving

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No, that was pretty much a text book deadball foul.

From the NFL Rulebook

Quote

Foul After Change of Possession. If there is a foul, including a dead-ball foul, after team possession has changed during a down, following enforcement of a distance penalty, it is first-and-10 for the team that was in possession at the time of the foul.

 

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Just now, stbugs said:

No conspiracy. Davis can’t taunt Funchess until after he’s already been stopped. If it was a late hit or face mask we get the first.

Or if it had been a 3rd down play and we were still in possession. As it was a 4th down play possession changed the second the play was whistled dead.

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Just now, stbugs said:

No conspiracy. Davis can’t taunt Funchess until after he’s already been stopped. If it was a late hit or face mask we get the first.

Oh, I know. Just sayin'...

Even if we're talking about a genuine blown call here, that's common. Every single team's fanbase can give you examples.

Poor officiating happens... plenty. It doesn't take a concerted effort to screw something up.

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4 minutes ago, RumHam said:

I have never seen that before and they really fuged that up. Never has there been a personal foul that takes place on the next play that still resulted in a turnover on downs. Should have been first down us, not them and 15 yards. #pointsshaving

It was a fourth down possession play in which the Panthers did not convert. The penalty was a dead ball foul (occurred after the Panthers did not convert). In other words, possession of the ball switched to Tampa immediately after the failed fourth down play and the penalty occurred after that change of possession.

It was the right call.

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What is wrong with our fan base...

Were you sitting there scratching your head last night too, when Michael Thomas scored the 70 yard touchdown and got the Unsportsmanlike Conduct penalty for using a prop during his celebration? Did you think that negates the touchdown, despite occurring after the play? 

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Yeah, people around me at the game were confused about this, but it's because they're thinking of it in terms of "we have possession and this happened right after the play, so we should still have possession."  You have to think of it like we stopped having possession the moment the whistle is blown and the play is dead.  At that point, if we didn't get the first down, then it's immediately Tampa's possession, so anything that happens after that affects their possession.

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30 minutes ago, RumHam said:

I have never seen that before and they really fuged that up. Never has there been a personal foul that takes place on the next play that still resulted in a turnover on downs. Should have been first down us, not them and 15 yards. #pointsshaving

It was after the play was over. The result of the play was a turnover. Following the play was a taunting penalty. If a personal foul had been committed during the play, we would've retained possession of the ball. It's the same reason why a personal foul for taunting after a touchdown doesn't bring the ball back out to the position where the offense was, minus 15 years, before the score.

It really isn't that difficult to understand. 

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